Quote:
Originally Posted by Calianna
If they didn't do the experiment repeatedly, switching the ones who had sucralose or saccharin to the other sweeteners, how do they know for sure that it wasn't just that the ones who happened to get sucralose and saccharin happened have a reaction to the 96+% glucose packets?
Also, even though all non-nutritive sweeteners are extremely concentrated, when they say the packets contained "at least 96% glucose" that means some of the sweeteners are so concentrated that they had to have an even higher percentage of glucose in them. The least concentrated of those sweeteners were 4% of the packet.
Pure sucralose is 600 times sweeter than sugar, pure saccharin is somewhere between 500-600 times sweeter than sugar.
Aspartame is about 1/3 as concentrated at about 200 times sweeter than sugar, and Stevia is also in the low range, from 100-300 times sweeter than sugar (depending on the exact form of stevia - Stevioside, Steviol glycoside, Rebaudioside A, or Steviol)
Someone who is better at math than I am can certainly figure out how much more of the packet needed to be glucose to even out the sweetening power, but since sucralose and saccharin are 2-6 times as sweet as aspartame and stevia, the packets containing those would have needed to be more than 99% glucose to keep the sweetening power of the saccharin or sucralose from becoming overwhelming.
Just a thought though - Even though they didn't get the same results from the group using the pure glucose packets, I wonder how much of the results could have been due to the higher concentration of glucose in the sucralose and aspertame products stimulating a blood sugar response (as well as gut changes) when in combination with those two extremely concentrated sweeteners. Even though the glucose in this experiment is a very small amount, it may not be nearly as unimportant as they would like to think.
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After thinking more about it for a while, I'm going to disagree with myself a bit. I don't think the glucose in the packets was a factor, since each packet only had 1 g total weight. Even the sucralose and saccharin packets had no more glucose in them than the packets that were 100% glucose.
Other thoughts:
Since this study was done on those not using any kind of artificial sweeteners in the previous 6 months, my assumption is that they were all eating a fairly standard high carb diet.
That makes me wonder if what's happening is that there's some chemical component/combination in the sucralose and saccharin (not present in the stevia and aspartame) that stimulates the release of excessive amounts of glycogen.
If one assumes they were all eating a standard high carb diet, my question is what happens if they're eating a Keto/LC diet, since there would be very minimal glucose entering the system, and very minimal glycogen storage to draw upon?
Which makes me wonder - if someone new to LC is still in induction, would using sucralose or saccharin help them use up those glycogen stores more quickly?
In the absence of more than very minimal dietary carbs, and once the glycogen stores are used up, how would sucralose or saccharin be able to raise blood sugar at all? Where could the glucose possibly come from that would cause sucralose or saccharin to raise blood sugar?
Testing only those 4 sweeteners also raise the question of in the absence of anything else in the diet that raises blood sugar, what kind of blood glucose response would there be with other types of sweeteners: allulose, Erythritol, xylitol, other sugar alcohols, oligofructose, ace K, monk fruit - I've probably forgotten quite a few of the ones avaiable.