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Quote:

Originally Posted by Eos

Nancy, I provided the link on human and cow’s casein comparison earlier on in discussion; however that research isn’t comprehensive enough, so I’d also encourage to look for more detailed break-down.
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There is one general point that we left somehow in the background behind all the thicket of elaborations and philosophisms:
I mean phylogenetic comparative methods and precision carbon isotope analyses performed with the ancient fossilized remains. The results of such analyses clearly and accurately indicated that the Paleolithic societies consumed either solely meat or meat and grass in various proportions, but none, none of these bones analyses whatsoever proved the myth of dairy presence in protodiet.

Obviously I agree that adult mammals don't drink milk naturally, and I see from the quote above that there's no evidence of human drinking of animal milk in paleo period.

But I'm trying to understand if there is an argument against casein in pure biochemical terms. OK some people here are intolerant to casein, but many people are not, so I don't see that supporting the idea that no-one should consume milk. And casein breaks down into an opioid peptide, and that could have opiate-type effects in the brain. But I read spinach also contains a compound that breaks down into an opioid peptide, so casein is not unique. And presumably the opiate effects will vary between different opioid peptides, with some having relatively little effect and being harmless.

I am not trying to argue for drinking milk - I'm just trying to understand if there is a biochemical argument against casein.